- It was used to write the Vulgate and ...
As far as I know, Vulgar Latin was a strictly spoken language. Vulgate was written in late Latin (as opposed to classical of the 1st century B.C. - 1st century A.D.), but it has very little to do with Vulgar Latin (except, perhaps for the name). Am I correct? --Uriyan
I'd say your statement was highly debatable, just as the statement that vulgar Latin "was used to write the Vulgate" is over-simplistic. The term "Late" Latin can also cover a multitude of sins. The point about the Vulgate was that it was written in the language of the people, ie. a language an ordinary person could understand. It's true that the average person probably couldn't have written "classical" Latin. However, all varieties of "late" Latin, including "vulgar" Latin (which also means the language of the people), were spoken forms only until such time as they were written down - in documents such as the Vulgate. --user:Deb
- Well, I'm only a beginning student of Latin, so I can't say for sure, of course, but I'd gotten the impression that the dialects called "Vulgar" are the more extreme versions (e.g. in the version that gave rise to French, the nouns ceased being inflected on most of the cases, the accusative being used as the basis rather than the nominative). Vulgate, however, is written down in very literary, ordered Latin that would have kept Virgil (mostly) happy if he had seen it. --Uriyan